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D-CSF-SC-01 Exam Simulator
  • Exam Code: D-CSF-SC-01
  • Exam Name: Dell NIST Cybersecurity Framework 2.0
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  • Q & A: 40 Questions and Answers
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NEW QUESTION: 1
承認された変更要求、承認された是正措置、および組織プロセス資産の更新はすべて、どのプロジェクト管理プロセスの出力ですか?
A. 利害関係者を管理する
B. リスク対応計画
C. パフォーマンスレポート
D. スコープ定義
Answer: A

NEW QUESTION: 2
Which three predefined orchestration groups should you use while assigning an orchestration process to fulfillment lines in process assignment rules? (Choose three.)
A. Order Type
B. Standard
C. Shipment Set
D. Model / Kit
E. Order Attribute
Answer: B,C,D

NEW QUESTION: 3
An administrator has configured a vSphere Distributed Switch to send all network traffic to a collector virtual machine for analysis. However, after checking the collector virtual machine several hours later the administrator finds that no data has been collected. vSphere 5.x has been deployed in the datacenter.
Which two items below could be causing this issue? (Choose two.)
A. The source virtual machine does not have Promiscuous Mode enabled.
B. The port group or distributed port does not have NetFlow enabled.
C. The port group or distributed does not have Promiscuous Mode enabled.
D. The source and target virtual machines are not both the same on the vSphere Distributed Switch.
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
Requirements for a collector virtual machine to analyze traffic from a vSphere Distributed Switch: 1) The source and target virtual machines must both be on a vNetwork Switch, but can be on any vDS datacenter. 2) The port group on distributed port must have NetFlow enabled. Two methods to migrate a virtual machine from a vSphere Standard Switch (VSS) to a vSphere Distributed Switch (VDS): 1) Migrate the port group containing the virtual machine from a vNetwork Standard Switch using the Migrate Virtual machine networking option. 2) Edit the Network Adapater settings for the virtual machine and select a dvPort group from the list.

NEW QUESTION: 4
What does "residual risk" mean?
A. A security risk intrinsic to an asset being audited, where no mitigation has taken place.
B. Weakness of an asset which can be exploited by a threat
C. Risk that remains after risk assessment has been performed
D. The security risk that remains after controls have been implemented
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The reason a company implements countermeasures is to reduce its overall risk to an acceptable level. No system or environment is 100 percent secure, which means there is always some risk left over to deal with.
This is called residual risk.
Residual risk is different from total risk, which is the risk a company faces if it chooses not to implement any type of safeguard.
There is an important difference between total risk and residual risk and which type of risk a company is willing to accept. The following are conceptual formulas:
threats × vulnerability × asset value = total risk

(threats × vulnerability × asset value) × controls gap = residual risk

You may also see these concepts illustrated as the following:
total risk - countermeasures = residual risk

Incorrect Answers:
B: The weakness of an asset which can be exploited by a threat is not the definition of residual risk.
C: Risk that remains after risk assessment has been performed (with no countermeasures in place) is total risk, not residual risk.
D: A security risk intrinsic to an asset being audited, where no mitigation has taken place) is total risk of the asset, not residual risk.
References:
Harris, Shon, All In One CISSP Exam Guide, 6th Edition, McGraw-Hill, New York, 2013, p. 87

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